A cumulative run through physics in Radiology

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Question Answer
What are the three basic parts of the x-ray imaging system Operating Console, X-Ray Tube and High Voltage Generator
A line compensator ensures that what remains constantly delivered to   the imaging system Voltage
What two separate circuits is the autotransformer used to supply power   to High voltage and filament circuits
The process of heating the x-ray tube filament so that electrons can   be boiled off is know as what thermionic Emission
Filaments normally operate at currents of how many amps 3 to 6
Examination tables are made of what strong, radiolucent material Carbon Fiber
The x-ray tube current is controlled by what circuit Filament
If an autotransformer moves from 1500 windings to 800 windings, what   type of transformer is it Step-Down
What are the three basic parts of the high-voltage generator High Voltage Transformer, Filament Transformer and Rectifiers
Rectification is accomplished with the use of what Diodes
Does half-wave rectification require half the exposure time as   full-wave rectification No
Is the x-ray tube a type of diode Yes
A three-phase twelve-pulse power has how much voltage ripple 4%
A three-phase, six-pulse power has how much voltage ripple 14%
A high-frequency generator has how much voltage ripple 1%
A single-phase power has how much voltage ripple 100%
What are the five types of exposure timers Manual, Mechanical, Synchronous, AEC and Electronic
Which exposure timer uses an ionization chamber to terminate exposure AEC
Name the parts of the x-ray tube Supporting wires, Focusing Cup, Filament, Window, Rotating Anode,   Stater Coils, Target, Roter and Glass Envelope
What device is used to check exposure timers for accuracy Solid State Radiation Detector
Which exposure timer is based on the frequency of AC supplied to the   imaging system Synchronous
Using a single-phase power, half-wave rectification results in how   many x-ray pulses each second 60
Using single-phase power, full wave rectification results in how many   x-ray pulses each second 120
Thermionic emission produces a cloud of electrons around the filament   known as what Space Charge
The main advantage of a rotating anode over a stationary anode is what Better Heat Distribution
Once the filament current is high enough for thermionic emission, a   small/large rise in filament current results in a small/large rise in tube   current Small, Large
When imaging x-table lateral spines, one should use which focal spot Large
The anode serves three functions in an x-ray tube, what are they Electrical Conductor, Mechanical Support and Thermal Dissipator
X-ray tubes in mammography have targets made of either what two   materials Rhodium and Molybdenum
The anode of a high-capacity tube rotates at how many RPM’s 3400 and 10000 rpm
The rotating anode is powered by what Electromagnetic Induction Motor
What are the characteristics that make tungsten a good selection for   target material High atomic number, Thermal conductivity and High melting point
Leakage radiation must be less than how many mR/hr at 1 meter 100
The protective housing may contain oil which serves two functions,   what are they Insulator and Thermal Cushion
The x-ray tube enclosure may be made of what two materials Glass(Pyrex) or Metal
What is the melting point of tungsten 3410oC
What element is added to tungsten to increase the efficiency of the   filament Thorium
The cathode is the negative side of the x-ray tube and contains what   two primary parts Focusing Cup and Filament
X-rays emitted through the window are called what Useful or Primary Beam
The focusing cup sustains what type of charge Negative
The x-ray tube is: a vacuum tube, a type of transistor, or a diode A vacuum tube and a diode
Target angles may vary from what to what degrees 5 to 20
The heel effect results in less radiation on which side of the x-ray   beam Anode
Should one use the maximum technique in order to warm a cold anode No
What are two causes of tube failure Too much technique on a cold tube(overheats) and arching effect due to   vaporized tungsten
The line-focus principle results in which focal spot size much less   than which focal spot size Effective focal spot/Actual Focal Spot
The smaller the anode angle, the heel effect becomes what Greater
What are the reasons that off-focus radiation is undesirable Extends the size of the focal spot, increases skin dose modestly and   reduces image contrast
Most of the causes of x-ray tube failure are related to what Thermal Capacity
A magnetic field is created any time what type of particle is in   motion A charge particle
What is the purpose of an electric generator To convert mechanical energy into electricity
What is the purpose of an electric motor To convert electricity into mechanical energy
A current carrying coil of wire is known as what Selenoid
Placing an iron core into a current carrying coil of wire would turn   the device into what Electromagnet
An electric current is induced in a circuit if some part of that   circuit is in what type of magnetic field Changing
What are the four factors of Faraday’s law The velocity of the magnetic field to the conductor, the magnetic   field strength, the angle of the conductor to the magnetic field and the   number of turns in the coil.
The autotransformer operates on what principle Self-induction
A regular step-up or step-down transformer operates on what principle Mutual Induction
What are the three main causes of transformer inefficiency Resistance, Hysteresis and eddy-currents
Transformers require what type of voltage to operate, while the x-ray   tubes must be supplied with this type of voltage AC/DC
Why is it important that the production of x-rays take place in a   vacuum Air can cause electrons to scatter, reducing the efficiency of the   beam production
What causes an “open filament” Over use of the filament causes vaporization of the tungsten
How much more area does a rotating anode provide to interact with the   electron beam than a stationary anode 1000 times
Tube current is adjusted by controlling what circuit Filament
What are the SI units of magnetic field strength Tesla
List three types of transformers Closed-Core, Autotransformer and shell-type
A step-up transformer results in an increase in what Voltage
A step-down transformer results in an increase in what Current
Electron target interactions result in the conversion of electron   kinetic energy into what two types of energy Thermal(Infared Radiation) and Electromagnetic (X-rays)
The production of heat in the anode increases directly with increasing   x-ray tube what Voltage and Current
Using three-phase power is equivalent to a what percent increase in   kVp over single phase equipment 12%
Using high-frequency power is equivalent to a what percent increase in   kVp over single phase equipment 16%
What effect does added filtration have on the x-ray beam Removes low energy rays, and “hardens” the beam (increases   quality while decreasing quantity)
Only what shell x-rays of tungsten are useful for imaging k-shell
The doubling of mAs causes a doubling of what striking the target, and   consequently doubles the number of what emitted electrons/x-rays
The roentgen is a measure of the number of what produced in air by a   quantity of x-rays Ion pairs
This is just a measure of the total number of electrons that travel   from cathode to anode to produce x-rays CurrentxSeconds(mAs)
The four factors affecting quantity are what kVp, mAs, Filtration and Distance
X-ray quality is also known as what Penetration
Doubling the optical density on a radiograph using kVp alone requires   an increase of what percent 15%
Two factors that affect x-ray quality are what kVp and filtration
Rectification The Conversion of AC power into DC power
Leakage Radiation The radiation that escapes from the tube housing
Off-Focus Radiation 3. Electrons that bounce off of the focal spot and strike other areas   of the target causing x-rays to be produced outside of the focal spot.
Thermionic Emission The “boiling off” of electrons from the filament
Half-Value Layer The amount of absorbing material required to reduce the intensity of   the beam by one half.
Proton A positively charged particle located inside the nucleus of an atom.   It also defines the atomic number of an element.
Neutron A particle located inside the nucleus of an atom that has no charge.
Electron A small particle that usually orbits around the nucleus of an atom and   has a negative charge
Atomic Number The total number of protons an element has, which consequently defines   what the chemical element is.
Ionization The release of an electron by an orbiting shell
Rem “Radiation Equivalent Man” the radiation amount absorbed by   a person through their occupation
Rad “Radiation absorbed dose” the absorbed amount of radiation   by any object
Roentgen The amount of radiation that is traveling through the air
Radiation The transfer of energy by the ionization of atoms
Radioactivity the emission of particles or energy from an atom
Alpha particle Consists of two neutrons and two protons from the nucleus of an atom
Beta particle The emission of an electron from the nucleus that converts a neutron   into a proton
Photon A packet of electromagnetic energy
Properties of a photon Frequency, wavelength, amplitude and velocity
Attenuation Reduction in intensity resulting from scattering and absorption
Coherent Scattering Results in a change in direction without a change in energy. AKA   classical scattering and occurs below 10 keV
Compton Scattering The source of most occupational radiation exposure. An outer shell   electron is struck and ejected (compton electron). The x-ray continues in a   different direction with less energy, and it produces fog.
Photoelectric Effect An inner orbital electron is struck and ejected, ionizing the atom.   The energy is completely absorbed. Responsible for characteristic diagnostic   image.
Pair Production Creates two electrons, + and -. Energy is absorbed by the nucleus, but   it must be at least 1.02 MeV
Photodisintegration Only occurs above 10MeV. Energy is absorbed by the nucleus which emits   a nuclear fragmant
Insulator Any material that does not allow electron flow
Superconductor A material that exhibits no resistance below a critical temperature
Semiconductor A material that under some conditions behaves as an insulator, and in   other conditions, behaves as a conductor
Conductor Any substance through which electrons flow easily
Resistance Anything that hinders or opposes the electric current flow of charge   particles
Radiopaque A substance in which electromagnetic waves cannot travel through
Radiolucent A substance in which electromagnetic waves can travel through
Find the number of electrons in a shell 2n^2
Find frequency or wavelength C= (wavelength)x(frquency)
Inverse square law (I1)(D1)^2 = (I2)(D2)^2
What is the smallest particle that has all the properties of an   element Atom
What is the maximum number of electrons that may be found in the   outermost shell of any atom 8
A proton and neutron are how much larger than an electron 2000 times
Who discovered x-rays and when Wilhelm Roentgen, November 8th, 1895
What is the largest source of natural environmental radiation Radon
What is the largest source of man-made ionizing radiation Diagnostic
What are the fundamental building blocks of matter Atoms and Molecules
When x-rays were first discovered, what was their source Crooks Tube
What are the types of energy Potential, Kinetic, Chemical, Electrical, Thermal, Nuclear and   Electromagnetic
What does ALARA stand for As Low As Reasonably Achievable
What did the Coolidge tube allow for the separation of Voltage and Current
What are three primary radiation protection devices Filtration, Shielding and Collimation
What are the two categories of ionizing radiation Electromagnetic (x and gamma) and Particulate (alpha and beta)
What is the smallest particle that has all the properties of a   compound Molecule
What are two factors that decrease the affinity of an electron to its   element? How do they effect it? The larger the atom the less the affinity and the further away an   electron’s orbit is, the less the affinity
At what speed does all electromagnetic radiation travel 3.0 x 10^8
What two natures does electromagnetic energy behave in Wave and Particle
Of these natures, which does it tend to behave more like Particle
How are frequency and wavelength related Inversely proportional
What is the smallest unit of negative electric charge Electron
If two negatively charged objects are brought near to each other will   they be attracted or repelled Repelled
If an object gains an electron does it become positively or negatively   electrified Negatively
Can protons move freely from one atom to another No
What are the three ways electrification can be created Induction, Friction and Contact
What is the electric charge of a coulomb 6.3 x 10^18
Do electric charges have potential energy Yes
What are the 3 main factors that characterize a simple circuit and   their unit of measurement Voltage (Volts), Current (Amps) and Resistance (Ohms)
How is the volt meter connected to a circuit Parallel
How is an amp meter connected to a circuit In Series
What type of circuit does voltage remain constant Series
What are the four factors that influence the resistance of a conductor Cross sectional Area, Material Type, length and temperature
What are three devices that help protect against or minimize exposure   to radiation Intensifying screens, filtration and lead shields
What is the difference between x-rays and gamma rays X-rays are emitted from the cloud of electrons, gamma rays are emitted   from the nucleus.

Abdomen Review

Abdomen Review Answer
What are the breathing instruction for an abdominal radiograph? Suspended expiration
Which body plane is centered to the midline of the IR for an abdominal   radiograph? Midsagittal
Which organ produces bile? Liver
Which body function does the pancreas perform? Production of digestive juices
Which organ stores and concentrates bile? Gallbladder
Which substance activates muscular contraction of the gallbladder? Cholecystokinin
The spleen is part of which body system? Lymphatic
In which organ are clusters of islet cells found? Pancreas
How many major lobes does the liver have? Two
Which structure forms the mesentery and omenta folds? Peritoneum
Which organ’s blood is supplied by the portal vein? Liver
Which duct is formed by the merging of the right and left hepatic   ducts? Common hepatic
Which duct is formed by the union of the cystic duct with the common   hepatic duct? Common bile
Where do the pancreatic and common bile ducts terminate? Duodenum
Which duct connects the gallbladder to the common hepatic duct? Cystic
Which 3 projections usually comprise the acute adbomen series for   ambulatory patients? Supine KUB, AP upright abdomen, PA chest
Why is it desirable to include the diaphragm in the upright abdominal   x-ray? To demonstrate free air in the abs
Which projection should be used to demonstrate free air within the ab   cavity when the patient is unable to stand for an upright ab x-ray? AP projection, left lateral decubitus position
Which projection does not demonstrate free air levels within the   abdomen? AP projection with the patient supine
What is the major advantage of the PA projection of the abdomen over   the AP projection of the abdomen? PA projection reduces exposure dose to the gonads.
Which x-ray position of the abs requires the patient to be supine with   the CR directed to a lateral side of the patient, entering slightly anterior   to the MCP? Dorsal decubitus
For the lateral projection with the patient placed in the dorsal   decubitus position, where should the CR enter the patient? 2 inches anterior to the MCP and 2 inches above the level of the iliac   crests.
Which structures should be examined to see whether the patient was   rotated for a lateral projection of the abdomen? Pelvis and lumbar vertebrae
Define cholangiography. The radiographic study of the bilary ducts.
Which of the following is indicated for patients with jaundice and   dilated biliary ducts? PTC
Which of the following is used to detect residual stones in the   biliary ducts? T-tube cholangiography
Air bubbles present in the T-tube during cholangiography can mimic   what? Cholesterol stones
What position is the patient placed in for postoperative cholangiographic   images? RPO
Which of the following is indicated when the biliary ducts are not   dilated and the ampulla is not obstructed? ERCP
Name 5 structures found in the abdominal cavity. Stomach, Liver, Gallbladder, Spleen, Pancreas, Kidneys
Name the 4 structures found in the pelvic cavity. Rectum, Bladder, Reproductive organs, Sigmoid of large intestine
The abdominopelvic cavity is enclosed within what? Peritoneum
What is the outer portion of the peritoneum called? Parietal Peritoneum
What is the inner portion of the peritoneum called? Visceral Peritoneum
What is the space between the 2 layers of peritoneum called? Peritoneal cavity
What is the largest gland in the body? The liver
What is the function of the spleen? To produce lymphocytes and to store and remove dead/dying RBCs
What does PTC stand for? Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography
Which AP abdomen position (supine or upright) is preferred for most   initial exams? Supine
Where is the CR centered for an upright PA abdomen x-ray? 2 inches above the level of the iliac crests
Why is ERCP used? To diagnose biliary and pancreatic patholgical conditions
How is ERCP performed? By passing a fiberoptic endoscope orally into the duodenum under   fluroscopic control.
For a right or left dorsal decubitus position with a lateral   projection, where is the CR directed? Horizontal and perpendicular to the center of the IR, entering the   midcoronal plane 2 inches above the level of the iliac crests.
For the left lateral decubitus position with an AP projection, where   is the CR directed? Horizontal and perpendicular to the midpoint of the IR.
Cholecystography Study of gallbladder
Cholegraphy Study of biliary system
What do the pancreas produce? Insulin, Glucagon
What is the purpose of the portal vein and hepatic artery? To deliver blood to the liver
Porta hepatis Hilum of the liver.
Falciform ligament Divides liver into small left lobe and large right lobe.
Pneumoperitoneum Presence of air in peritoneal cavity.
Cholelithiasis Presence of gallstones
Choledocholithiasis Calculus in common bile duct.
Cholecystitis Acute or chronic inflammation of gallbladder.
If free air is suspected on a patient, which positions could be   performed? Upright; Left lateral decubitus
What organ occupies most of the right hypochondrium and the   epigastrium regions of the abdomen? The liver
What is formed when the right and left hepatic ducts join together? The common hepatic duct
What hormone activates muscular contractions of the gallbladder? Cholecystokinin
What is another name for the ampulla of Vater? Hepatopancreatic ampulla
The spleen is part of which body system? Lymphatic
What does deglutition mean? Swallowing food
What is the name of the main bile duct leading directly from the   liver? Hepatic duct
What is the name of the opening in the proximal end of the stomach? Cardiac orifice
What is the name of the organ that lies within the duodenal loop? Pancreas
Which of the following abdominal organs produces and secretes digestive   enzymes? Pancreas
What is the name of the proximal portion of the stomach? Fundus
Where does the majority of food digestion take place? Small intestine
What is the name of the duct that transports bile from the   gallbladder? Cystic duct
In the HYPERSTHENIC patient, where does the stomach lie? High and Horizontal
The gallbladder will be located near the vertebrae in which body   habitus type? Asthenic
What is the name of the flexure that lies between the transverse colon   and the descending colon? Splenic
What is the name of the mucosal folds that are visible when the   stomach is empty? Rugae

Contrast & Density

Question Answer
An H & D curve demonstrating a steep curve represents film with   ______? High contrast
How does the use of grids affect the contrast of a radiograph? Produces higher contrast
Subject contrast is caused by? Tissue density differences, atomic number, and body part thickness
List the body parts in order from less absorbing power to more   absorbing power. Air, Fat, Water, Muscle, and Bone
Adding air to a body part ______ its tissue density compared to the   structures around it. Decreases
Adding iodine or barium to a body part ______ its tissue density   compared to the structures around it. Increases
What is the main controlling factor for radiographic contrast? kVP
The radiation that goes through the patient’s body is called? Exit radiation or remnant radiation
Scattered radiation ________ radiographic contrast. Lowers
3 most common contrast agents Air, Barium and Iodine
Adding air <increases/decreases> radiographic density Decreases
As x-ray photons are absorbed, scattered, or pass through, the   intensity of the beam is reduced. this is called _______. Attenuation
________ refers to the ability of a film to record a wide range of   densities. Film latitude
Low energy radiation will result in ______ ____ contrast. Short scale
How will high kvp techniques affect radiographic contrast? Produce lower contrast
The quality of an x-ray beam is determined by? kVp
How will increasing screen speed affect radiographic quality? Produce higher contrast
Which grid ratio should be used to maintain contrast when using over   100 kvp? 12:1
The number of density difference in a radiograph refers to what? Scale of contrast
How does a small increase indeveloper temperature affect radiographic   contrast? Produces higher contrast
Subject contrast will be the lowest with which body habitus? Hyperstenic
What accessory can be used to demonstrate a scale of contrast or test   for contrast? Penetrometer
How will an air gap technique affect radiographic contrast? Produce higher contrast
Contrast can be measured from an H & D curve by finding the slope   of the ________ ________. Highest contrast
Long wavelength radiation will result in _____ scale contrast. Short
What type of relationship occurs with contrast when mAs increases? Inverse relationship
What type of relationship occurs with contrast when SOD increases? Inverse relationship
What type of relationship occurs with contrast when tube angle   increases? No change
Why is contrast needed in a radiographic image? Makes detail visible.
How does an increase in developer temperature affect contrast? Contrast decreases.
As contrast decreases, how is the number of densities in the film   affected? Increases
As motion increases, what happens to contrast? Motion has no effect on contrast.
Define contrast. Difference between adjacent densities.
A visible change in kVp is not seen until kVp is changed __ to __%,   depending on kVP range. 4, 12
What are the two types of radiographic contrast? Film and subject contrast
Define film contrast. The range of densities that the image is capable of recording.
Define subject contrast. Range of differences in the intensity of the x-ray beam after it has   been attenuated by the subject.
What happens to contrast if collimation is increased? Decreased contrast
Density is one of the two ________ properties comprising visibility of   detail. Photographic
Increments of 0.3 changes in optical density numbers represent a   ________ or ________ of opacity. Doubling, halving
Image density/brightness on the display monitor is controlled by   __________ ________ Window levelling
The ______________ _______ states film density should remain unchanged   as long as the intensity and duration of x-ray exposure remains unchanged. Reciprocity law
When kVp ranges 30 – 50, a __ to ___ percent change in kVP can be   detected. 4 to 5
A __ to ___ percent change in kVp is required in the 50-90 kVp range. 8 to 9
A ___ to __ percent change in kVp is required in the 90 – 130 kVp   range. 10 to 12
The 15 percent rule is somewhat accurate within the range of ___ to   ____ kVp. 60 to 100
The image receptor exposure is always greater at the _________ end. Cathode
The anode heel effect is also more significant when using ____ _____   anodes (12 degrees or less) small angle
The portion of an object with the greatest subject density should be   placed toward the ____ end of the tube. Cathode
Radiolucent contrast media (air) will _________ film density. Increase
Radiopaque contrast media (barium, iodine) will _______ film density. Decrease
As relative speed increases, the amount of exposure required to   maintain the same film density ____________. Decreases
Film density will _____ when developer solution temperatures ________. Increase, increase
Film density will _____ when developer solution temperatures ________. Decrease, decrease
__________ ____________ controls image contrast. Window width
As the slope of the Dlog E curve increases, contrast is _______. Increased
Low kVp produces ____ subject contrast because most of the low energy   photons are absorbed by thicker parts. Higher
With high kVP, subject contrast is _______ because more uniform   penetration occurs between thick and thin parts. Decreased
In a fixed kilovoltage system, the kVp is held _______, while the mAs   is ______ to achieve appropriate image receptor exposure. Constant, varied
Fixed kilovotage technique systems, _____ patient dose. Decrease
_______________ kVp is the maximum kVp level that will produce images   with appropriate contrast, consist within acceptance limits. Optimal
The objective of optimal kVp is to determine the ____kVp and _____   contrast that is within acceptance limits. Highest, lowest
A ________ ____________ x-ray exposure technique system is one where   the kilovoltage to be used for a particular projection is varied, depending   on measured body part thickness. Variable kilovoltage

Cervical/Thoracic Spine

Question Answer
How many cervical bones are found in the adult vertebral column? 7
How many thoracic bones are found in the adult vertebral column? 12
How many lumbar bones are found in the adult vertebral column? 5
How many sacral segments or bones are found in the adult body? How   many in the infant body? 1; 5
How many coccygeal segments or bones are found in the adult body? How   many in the newborn body? 1; 4 (avg)
How many total separate bones are found in the adult vertebral column? 26
How many total separate bones are found in newborn vertebral column? 33
Where are the two primary or posterior convex curves seen in the   vertebral column? thoracic, sacral
Where are the two secondary or compensating concave curves in the   vertebral column? cervical, lumbar
A curve that is rounded inward or depressed (from a posterior   perspective) of the vertebral column. concave
A curve that is rounded outward or elevated from the surface   (posterior perspective) of the vertebral column. convex
What compensatory curve forms as a child begins to raise their head   and sit up? cervical curvature
What compensatory curve develops when children learn to walk? lumbar curvature
Which curves are more pronounced in women than men? inferior curves, lumbar and sacral
An abnormal, or exaggerated, “sway back” lumbar curvature. lordosis
An abnormal or exaggerated lateral curvature seen in the thoracolumbar   spine. scoliosis
An abnormal or exaggerated thoracic “humpback” curvature. kyphosis
Lordosis of the spine is always abnormal. True/False false, only if exaggerated
The two main parts of a typical vertebra are: body, vertebral arch
The two bony aspects of the vertebral arch that extend posteriorly   from each pedicle to join at the midline laminae
What foramina are created by two small notches on the superior and   inferior aspects of the pedicles? intervertebral
The opening, or passageway, for the spinal cord. vertebral canal
Where does the spinal cord begin? medulla oblongata of the brain
The downward extension of the spinal cord is located where? lower L1 border
The tapered ending of the spinal cord. conus medullaris
Which structures pass through the intervertebral foramina? spinal nerves, blood vessels
The thick, weight-bearing anterior part of the vertebra. body
Why are the superior and inferior surfaces of the body rough and flat? attachment of the intervertebral disks
What extends posteriorly from the vertebral body? a ring or arch
The circular opening formed by the posterior surface of the body and   the vertebral arch. vertebral foramen
What is the tubelike opening formed by the sucession of vertebral   formina as a result of stacked vertebrae? vertebral canal
What does the vertebral canal do? encloses and protects the spinal cord
What extends posteriorly from either side of the vertebral body and   forms most of the sides of the vertebral arch? (superior perspective) pedicles
What are the two somewhat flat layers of bone that form the posterior   part of the vertebral arch? (superior perspective) laminae
What extends posteriorly from each pedicle to unite in the midline?   (superior perspective) lamina
The projection that extends laterally from approximately the junction   of each pedicle and lamina. (superior perspective) transverse process
The projection that extends posteriorly at the midline junction of the   two laminae and most posterior extension of the vertebrae. (superior   perspective) spinous process
From a lateral perspective, the posterior extensions directly off the   vertebral body and are located on each side. pedicle
From a lateral perspective, where do the pedicles terminate? area of the transverse process
From a lateral perspective, what continues posteriorly from the origin   of the transverse process on each side? two laminae
Where does the lamina end, from a lateral perspective? at the spinous process
How many articular processes are there? 4 (2 superior, 2 inferior)
What do the articular processes formulate? important joints of the vertebral column
What is the third main part of a typical vertebra? joints
How many joint types are in the vertebral column? 3
The joints found between the vertebral bodies. intervertebral joints
What is located within the intervertebral joints and are tightly bound   to adjacent vertebral bodies for spinal stability but allow for flexibility   and movement of the vertebral column? intervertebral disks
The joints located between the superior and inferior articular   processes. zygapophyseal joints
The term used to describe the articulating surface. facet
The joints located along a portion of the vertebral column and   articulates with the ribs to the thoracic vertebra. costal joints
The articulation of a facet, located on the body of a thoracic   vertebra, with the head of a rib. costovertebral joint
The articulation of a facet, located on a transverse process of the   thoracic vertebra, with the tubercle of a rib. costotransverse joint
The half moon-shaped area located along the upper surface of each   pedicle. (left/right) superior vertebral notch
The half moon-shaped area located along the lower surface of each   pedicle. (left/right) inferior vertebral notch
The opening formed by the alignment of the superior and inferior   vertebral notches when the vertebraes are stacked. (4th aspect of vertebral   column) intervertebral foramen
Where are the intervertebral foramina located? between every two vertebrae
How many intervertebral foramen (foramina) are located between every   two vertebrae? 2, one on each side
What passes through the intervertebral foramina? important spinal nerves and blood vessels
Typical adult vertebrae are separated by tough fibrocartilaginous   disks between every two vertebra. True/False false, not between C1 and C2 as C1 has no body
What is the purpose of the intervertebral disks? provide a resilient cushion between the vertebrae and help absorb   shock during movement of the spine
What is the outer fibrous portion of the intervertebral disk? annulus fibrosus
What is the soft, semigelatinous inner part of the intervertebral   disk? nucleus pulposus
What happens when the soft inner portion of the intervertebral disk,   nucleus pulposes, protrudes through the outer fibrous layer, annulus   fibrosus,of the intervertebral disk? it presses on the spinal cord and causes severe pain and numbness that   radiates into the lower limbs
Name the condition when the soft inner portion of the intervertebral   disk, nucleus pulposes, protrudes through the outer fibrous layer, annulus   fibrosus,of the intervertebral disk. slipped disk
The condition causing a “slipped disk” is correctly referred   to what? herniated nucleus pulposes (HNP)
The zygapophyseal joints of all cervical vertebrae are visualized only   in a true lateral position. True/False false
What zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are visualized on a   true AP projection? C1-C2
What zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are visualized on a   true lateral projection? C3-C7
What is the vertebral column? a complex succession of many bones called vertebrae
Where is the function of the vertebral column? provide a flexible supporting column for the trunk and head and also   transmit the weight of the trunk and upper body to the lower limbs
Where is the vertebral column located? midsagittal plane, forming the posterior or dorsal asapect of the bony   trunk of the body
As adjacent vertebrae are stacked vertically, openings in each   vertebra line up to create what? a tubelike vertical spinal canal
What does the spinal canal contain? the spinal cord
What is the spinal canal filled with? cerebrospinal fluid
What is the most common site for a lumbar puncture into the spinal   canal to avoid striking the spinal cord? level of L3-L4
How many divisions are in the vertebral canal? 5; cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx
How many cervical vertebrae are in the vertebral column? 7
How many thoracic vertebrae are in the vertebral column? 12
What are the unique characteristics of the cervical vertebrae? transverse foramina, bifid spinous process tips, overlapping vertebral   bodies
The cervical vertebrae are all the same size. True/False false, they continue to get larger progressing down to the seventh   cervical vertebra
Which vertebrae are considered “typical” vertebrae? C3-C6
What is another term used to describe the first vertebra, C1? atlas
Where was the term “atlas” for C1 derived from? a Greek god who bore the world upon his shoulders
What is the distinquishing feature of C1? it has no body but a thick arch of bone called the anterior arch which   includes a small anterior tubercle
What replaces the two laminae and spinous process, found in typical   vertebrae, on C1? posterior arch that includes a small posterior tubercle
What is another term used to describe the second vertebra, C2? axis
What is the most distinctive feature of C2? dens; odontoid process
What is the dens, or odontoid process? a conical process that projects up from the superior surface of the   vertebra body of C2
What is the dens embryologically? body of C1; fuses to C2 during development
What holds the dens in place to C1? transverse atlantal ligament
What is to the left and right of C1? superior articular processes
What is the large depressed surface of the left and right superior   articular processes on C1 called? superior facet
What is the purpose of the superior facet on the right and left   superior articular processes of C1? articulation with the respective right and left occipital condyles of   the skull
What are the articulations/joints between C1 and the occupital   condyles of the skull called? atlantooccipital articulations
The segments of bone between the superior and inferior articular   processes of a typical vertebra. articular pillars
The segment of bone between the superior and inferior articular   process of C1. lateral mass
The lateral mass of C1 is the most bulky and solid part. What is it’s   purpose? support the weight of the head and assist in rotation of the head
Where does the rotation of the head primarily occur? between C1 and C2
What acts as a pivot for rotation of the head? dens
What assists the dens with rotation of the head? superior articular processes that articulate with the skull
What type of stress might cause fracture of the dens? forced flexion-hyperextension “whiplash” type of injury
Why is the relationship of C1 and C2 and the relationship of C1 tothe   base of the skull clinically important? injury this high in the spinal canal can result in serious paralysis   and death
What does the AP open mouth demonstrate? C1 and C2
Why is the anterior arch of C1, which lies in front of the dens, not   clearly visible on an xray image? it is a thin piece of bone compared with the larger, more dense den
The articulations between C2 and C1, the zygapophyseal joints, and the   relationship of the dens to C1 must be perfectly symmetric. What would render   these areas asymmetric? injury and improper positioning
What is another term used to describe the seventh vertebra, C7? vertebra prominens
What section of the vertebral column does C7 most resemble? thoracic, spinous process is extra long and more horizontal than the   other cervical vertebrae
What is the palpable bony landmark of the cervical column, where is it   located and what is it’s purpose? spinous process of C7, base of the neck, used for radiographic   positioning
The transverse processes of the typical cervical vertebrae arise from   the pedicle-lamina junction. True/False false, from the pedicle and the body
What is the hole in each transverse process of the cervical vertebra   called? transverse foramen
What passes through the cervical transverse foramen? vertebral artery and veins, and certain nerves
How many foramina are found in the cervical vertebrae? Name them. 3, right and left transverse foramina and the single large vertebral   foramen
The spinous processes of C2-C6 are fairly short and end in what? double-pointed or bifid tip
The cervical superior and inferior articular processes, located over   and under the articular pillars, are directly lateral to what? the large vertebral foramen
The zygapophyseal joints for the second through seventh cervicle   verebrae are situated at what angle? 90° or right angles to the midsagittal plane
How are the zygapophyseal joints of C3-C7 visualized radiographically? true lateral projection
How are the zygapophyseal joints of C1-C2 visualized radiographically? true AP projection
How can the intervertebral foramina of the cervical column be   identified? by the pedicles
The pedicles in the cervical column form what bounderies of the   intervertebral foramina? superior and inferior
The intevertebral foramina of the cervical vertebrae are situated at   what angle? 45° angle to the midsagittal plane and open anteriorly
What vertebrae of the thoracic region are considered “typical”   vertebrae? T5-T8, least resemble cervical or lumbar vertebrae
Describe T1-T4 characteristics. smaller, share features of the cervical vertebrae
Describe T9-T12 characteristics. larger, share characteristics of the lumbar vertebrae
What is the unique feature of all thoracic vertebrae that   distinguishes them from other vertebrae? facets for rib articulation
How many facets do the thoracic vertebrae have and where are they   positioned? one full facet or a partial facet on each side
Another term for two partial facets. demifacets
Each facet or combination of two demifacets located on the thoracic   vertebrae accepts the head of a rib to form what joint? costovertebral
The first 10 thoracic vertebrae have an additional set of facets   located where? on each side of the transverse process
Each set of facets on the transverse processes of T1-T10 that   articulate with the tubercles of ribs 1-10 form what joint? costotransverse
Ribs 11 and 12 articulate only at the costotransverse joints.   True/False false, costovertebral joint
How is the spinous process of the thoracic region projected? inferiorly
How is the spinous process of the thoracic region best viewed   radiographically? lateral projection
How is the spinous process of the thoracic region projected   radiographically on an AP, anteroposterior, projection? superimposed on the body of the successive thoracic vertebra
From a lateral oblique perspective of the thoracic spine, what   direction is the superior articular processes facing? primarily posterior
From a lateral oblique perspective of the thoracic spine, what   direction is the inferior articular processes facing? more anterior
What is found on each side, between any thoracic vertebrae, which are   defined on the superior and inferior margins by the pedicles? intervertebral foramina
In the thoracic vertebrae, what angle do the zygapophyseal joints   form? 70-75° from the midsagittal plane
What postition would be needed in order to “open up”and   radiographically demonstrate the thoracic zygapophyseal joints? an oblique 70-75° rotated position with a perpendicular central ray
The openings of the intervertebral foramina on the thoracic vertebra   are located at what angle? 90° or right angles to the midsagittal plane
What postition would be needed in order to radiographically   demonstrate the thoracic intervertebral foramina? true lateral, 90° projection will demonstrate the right and left   superimposed on each other

Radiographic Exposure

Radiology exposure answers
Define contrast difference in adjacent densities
Define quantity The radiation intensity or the number of x rays in the beam, measured   in mR
Define the relationship between ma and tube current Directly proportional
Define the relationship between ma and mR Directly proportional
Describe the relationship between exposure time and density Directly proportional
Describe the relationship between time and mR Directly proportional
Describe the relationship between mAs and density Directly proportional
describe the relationship between kVp and mR Inversely proportional
Describe the relationship between SID and mR inversely proportional
Identify 4 imaging characteristics controlled by SID magnification, distortion, penumbra and density
Define the reciprocity law. Any combination of mA and time can be used to get the same mAs with   the same result in density.
What is the 15% rule? If kVp is increased by 15%, mAs will be halved. If kVp is decreased by   15%, mAs will be doubled.
ma + s = mAs
What is the density maintenance formula? new mAs/old mAs = new D^2/old D^2
What is meant by low contrast? lots of gray
What is meant by high contrast? few shades of gray
How do you get a higher contrast on a film? lower the kVp
How do you get a lower contrast on a film? Use a higher kVp
What are the prime factors for exposure? mA, kVp, distance and time
What is quality? the penetrability of the beam
What is the controlling factor of contrast? kVp
What is the controlling factor of density? mAs
What is the relationship between kVp and scatter? Directly proportional
What is the function of contrast? To make details visible
What is meant by short scale contrast? Few shades of gray
What is meant by long scale of contrast? Many shades of gray
What is subject contrast? The range of differences in the intensity of the remnant x ray beam   after it has been attenuated by the patient.
What is image receptor contrast? The range of densities the image receptor is capable of recording.
Five factors that affect image receptor contrast H & D curve, image density, processing, digital image receptors,   intensifying screens
Three factors that affect subject contrast? kVp, amount of tissue irradiated, type of tissue irradiated.
How does mAs affect radiographic contrast Under or over exposure
How does focal spot size affect radiographic contrast No influence.
How does the anode heel effect affect radiographic contrast? Little effect
How does filtration affect contrast? Inversely related.
How does beam restriction (collimation) affect contrast? Inversely related.
How do grids affect contrast? Directly related.
What are two types of motion? Involuntary and voluntary.
Give an example of involuntary motion. pain, breathing, chills, spasms
What is the typical range for O.D? 0.25 to 2.5
How does SID affect density? By a factor of 4 (inversely).
What are the seven types of radiologic tissue types. metal, enamel, bone, muscle, fluids, fat and air/gas
Give an example of voluntary motion. nervousness, discomfort, fear, excitability
Define density. The overall blackness on the image. Also described as the amount of   black metallic silver on a film.
What is fog? Unwanted density on the film.
The total quantity of x rays produced in an x ray beam is determined   by the _____. mAs
The distance between the x ray tube and the film is? Source to image distance (SID)
Low radiographic contrast is called? long scale contrast
Two factors that directly control the amount of x rays emitted by the   tube are? ma and time
The shorter the SID, the __________ the intensity of the xray beam? greater
Radiographic density if produced by? The quantity of x rays reaching the image receptor.
Scattered radiation has what effect on radiographic contrast? It decreases it.
Describe the relationship between filtration and density. Inversely related.
descibe the relationship between collimation and density inversely related
Describe the relationship between thickness and density. Inversely related
Describe the relationship between grid ratio and density. Inversely related.
Describe the relationship between thickness and contrast. Inversely related.
Describe the relationship between processing time and contrast Inversely related.

Chest Positioning

Chest Positioning Answers
Why is the patient placed in an upright position when x-raying the   heart and lungs? To prevent engorgement of the pulmonary vessels and to allow gravity   to depress diaphragm.
Which lateral chest image (left or right) is most commonly used? Left
In a PA projection of the chest, the central ray is directed to what   level? T7
During x-ray of the lungs, the diaphragm moves to its lowest position   when? Erect inspiration
Rotation on a PA chest x-ray can be detected by evaluating what? Sternoclavicular joints
How many ribs should be seen on an adult chest x-ray? 10
When performing a frontal projection of the chest, why is the PA   projection preferred? It places the heart closest to the IR
Why is the right side of the lung base higher than the left? Because of the presence of the liver.
Is the posterior aspect of the ribs higher than the anterior aspect? Yes
How many degrees should a patient be rotated for a PA oblique   projection of the chest evaluating the lungs? 45 degrees
Where should the CR be directed/centered for a lateral projection? Perpendicular to the midline of the IR, at the level of T7.
Where is the midsagittal plane placed for a lateral projection? The MSP should be parallel with the plane of the IR.
What body plane should be perpendicular and centered to the midline of   the IR? Midcoronal
With a PA Oblique projection, which side (the one closer or farther)   is generally the side of interest? The one farthest from the IR.
Which side of the chest (left or right) is of primary interest with   the PA oblique projection, RAO? Left side
When performing the PA oblique projection, RAO position, how many   degrees should the patient be rotated? 45 degrees
When performing the PA oblique projection, LAO position, how many   degrees should the patient be rotated? 55 to 60 degrees
Which AP oblique projection produces an image similar to that produced   by the PA oblique projection, RAO position? AP oblique projection, LPO position
In a AP Axial (Lordotic) projection, which portion of the lung is   generally the area of interest? Apex
In a AP Axial (Lordotic) projection, where should the CR enter the   patient? Midsagittal plane, on the midsternum.
What is the general purpose for using a lateral decubitus position? To demonstrate air or fluid levels in the thorax.
If a patient has fluid on right side of thorax, which lateral   decubitus position should be used? Right lateral recumbent
Which side of the thorax will best demonstrate free air when the   patient is in the left lateral decubitus position? Right
What positions are used to demonstrate air and fluid levels in a   supine or prone position? Ventral and dorsal decubitus
For a dorsal decubitus position projection, what position is the   patient placed in? Supine
For a ventral decubitus position projection, what position should the   patient be placed in? Prone
Where is the CR entered on a patient for the dorsal decubitus   projection? Midcoronal plane, approximately 3-4 inches distal to jugular notch
Where is the CR entered on a patient for the ventral decubitus   projection? Midcoronal plane at level of T7
Which structure is not demonstrated within the mediastinum in PA   projections of the chest? Diaphragm
Why should chest x-rays be performed with a 72-inch SID? To minimize magnification of the heart.
Why should chest x-rays be performed after the patient has suspended   respiration after the second inspiration? To better expand the lungs.
With reference to the IR, how are the MSP and the MCP positioned for a   chest PA projection? MSP: perpendicular; MCP: parallel
For a chest PA projection, what maneuver should be performed to remove   scapulae from lung fields? Rotate the shoulders forward
For which chest projection should the MSP be parallel with the IR? Lateral projection
Regarding the IR, how are the MCP and MSP positioned for the lateral   projection of the chest? MCP: perpendicular; MSP: parallel
Which chest projection demonstrates lung apices free from   superimposition with the clavicles? AP axial projection, lordotic position (Lindblom method)
How many degrees should patient be rotated for PA oblique projections   of the chest to evaluate the lungs? RAO: 45 degrees; LAO: 45 degrees
Using the lateral decubitus position for patients unable to stand best   demonstrates which pathologic condition of the chest? Air or fluid levels
Regarding IR, how are the MSP and the MCP positioned for the AP chest   (left lateral decubitus position)? Midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronal; parallel
Which pathologic condition of the lungs is best demonstrated with the   AP chest, right lateral decubitus position? Free air in the left side or fluid levels in the right side?
Which pathologic condition of the lungs is best demonstrated with the   AP chest, right lateral decubitus position? Free air in the left side or fluid levels in the right side.
Which x-ray position requires that the patient be placed prone? Ventral decubitus
Which evaluation criterion pertains to the AP axial projections,   lordotic position radiograph of the chest? The clavicles should lie superior to the apices.
Which decubitus would be performed for a patient with fluid on the   left side? Left lateral decubitus
Which x-ray position requires the patient to be placed supine? Dorsal Decubitus
To demonstrate free air in the thoracic cavity on patient’s left side,   what position is used? Right Lateral decubitus
During an upright PA chest x-ray, why is the patient asked to flex   their arms and rest the back of their hands on the hips? To rotate the scapulae laterally, avoiding superimposing the lungs.

Radiation Protection Final Review

Question Answer
Well- oxygenated rapidly dividing cells are _______ sensitive to   damage by radiation. very sensitive
Atoms that have the same number of protons w/in the nucleus but a   different number of neutrons isotopes
What instrument should be used to locate a lost radioactive source or   to detect low-level radioactive contamination? Geiger-Muller
What instruments can be used to calibrate radiographic and fluorscopic   equipment? ionization chambers
What is an advantage of the cutie-pie? able to measure a wide range of radiation exposures within a few   seconds
This monitoring device can descriminate between x-radiationa and gamma   and beta radiation film badge
This monitring device is not affected by humidity, pressure, or normal   temp changes, can be worn for up to 3 months, but does not serve as a   permanent record of exposure thermoluminescent dosimeter
This monitoring device can not be used for procedures that are short pocket ionization chamber
These record whole-body radiation exposure accumulated at a low rate   over a long period of time. film badge
The term optimization for radiatio protection is synonymous with the   term: ALARA-as low as reasonably achievable
the degree to which the diagnostic study accurately reveals the   presence or absence of disease in the patient. diagnostic efficacy
the main adverse health effect from Chernobyl increase of thyroid cancerin children and adolescents
1 sievert= _____ rem 100 rem
International System of Units (SI), unit of equivalent dose sievert
traditional unit of equivalent dose rem
2 examples of ionizing radiation x and gamma
equivalent dose only applies to ________ radiation ionizing
compared with beta particles, alpha particles are <more/less>   penetrating less
blood changes occur at ____ Sv, which is equivalent to ____rem .25 Sv/ 25 rem
transference of electromagnetic energy to the atoms of the material absorption
amount of energy absorbed per unit mass absorbed dose
the emerging x-ray photon is collectively referred to as: primary radiation
a reduction in the number of primary photons in the x-ray beam through   absorption and scatter as the beam passes through the object in its path attenuation
the photons that emerge from an object and strike the IR below it exit, image formation, photons
2 types of interaction that are important in diagnostic radiology compton scattering and photoelectric absorption
some short term somatic effects nausea, fatigue, loss of hair, fever, blood disorders, intestinal   disorders, diffused redness of skin, shedding of outer layer of skin
long term or late somatic effects cancer, embryologic effects, formation of cataracts
a dose of radiation below which an individual has a negligible chance   of sustaining specific biologic damage threshold dose
short term somatic effects appear __________ within minutes, hours, days or weeks of the time of exposure
internationally accepted unit for measurement of exposure to   x-radiation and gamma radiation Roentgen
radiation-equivalent man rem
SI unit for absorbbed dose and its traditional equivalent gray (Gy) and rad
When designing the thickness of protective barriers, the inverse   square law applies to the factor of which of the following? . Distance
What is the recommended cumulative whole-body effective dose   equivalent limit? Age in years multiplied by 10 mSv (1000 mrem)
To what type of radiation exposure does the EDE system apply? Occupational exposure and exposure of the general public
What is the effective dose equivalent for occupants of controlled   areas? Less than 1000 microsieverts (100 mR)/week
Isoexposure profiles during fluoroscopy show the need for which of the   following? Bucky slot covers and protective curtains
. Why are secondary barriers always given a use factor of 1? Scatter radiation and leakage radiation are always present when the   tube is energized.
What is the EDE limit during pregnancy? 5 mSv (500 mrem)
What are primary protective barriers designed to protect against? Primary or useful beam radiation
. In determining barrier thickness, what does the use factor or beam   direction factor represent? The fractional amount of time the primary beam is energized and   directed at a barrier
In the design of protective structural shielding, what type of   radiation is most hazardous and most difficult to protect against? Primary radiation
The normal process by which somatic sells proliferate is termed: mitosis
The symptoms of fever and malaise associated with a reduced number of   leukocytes is one of the major characteristics of the ___________ syndrome. hematologic syndrome
The most sensitive phase of the normal cell cycle occurs during the   _________ phase. middle of the M-phase
erythema redness of the skin
period of major organogenesis occurs during the __ of fetal   development 2nd to 8th week
most sensitive organs to the effects of 200 rems of rad exposure testes and ovaries
cells that have a specialized function and are in the final stage of   their maturation process differentiated cells
what are the first signs of ARS Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea
A change in the normal proliferation or reproductive rate of a group   of cells is called ________. mitotic delay
A direct effect usually refers to a ___________ caused by x-ray photon   or other form of high-energy radiation. point mutation on a DNA molecule
Th emost common symptoms accompanying the gastrointestinal syndrome   are: dehydrationa and vomiting
a common by product resulting from the irradiation of water in a living   cell is a bleach called ______ hydrogen peroxide
energy from ionizing radiation is transferred from a directly ionized   molecule to another molecule that is not directly ionized is called indirect hit theory
In an otherwise healthy person, somatic damage to radiation is   approximately ____ % repairable when small exposures are received in   fractioned doses 90%
period in which effect of exposure are hidden latent
period of an acute exposure to radiation in which the effects of the   exposure are apparent manifest
the majority of damage to the body from radiation exposure results   from the ________ effect indirect
epilation loss of hair
A patient receives an estimated exposure f 3000 millirad of   x-rays…what is his person’s dose equivalent? 3000 millirem
Air kerma is employed to equate the exposure to radiation   traditionally measured by the _______(how is it expressed?) roentgen and expressed in units of gray
A person is exposed to 200 rad of beta having a quality factor of 2.   This person’s dose equivalency is _____. 400 rem
A pt is exposed to 95 rad of 1 MeV neutrons having a QF of 6. This   person’s dose equivalency is ______. 570 rem
primary difference between a Geiger-Muller detector and a cutie pie   is: the voltage impressed on the ionization chamber
Luxel badges detect radiation through a process called __________. optically stimulated luminosity
the smallest exposure that is detectable through the use of a standard   film type personnel monitoring device is approximately _____. 10 mrem
the smallest radiation exposure that can be detected by a biological   method is approx _____mrem 25,000 mrem
principle active component of a thermoluminescent dosimeter is a   special crystal called lithium fluoride
the roentgen is most closely related to __ radiation primary
the short interval of time during which a radiation counter is unable   to respond to radiation exposure is called _______. dead time
a 200 rem exposure is equivalent to _____sieverts 2 Sv
the linear energy transfer (LET) of an x-ray or gamma photon is low   because of its ____ . high penetration
<Alpha, Beta, Gamma> possesses the greatest threat to the   internal organs from an external exposure gamma
the traditional unit of absorbed dose is equivalent to an energy   transfer of 100 ergs per gram of any matter and is termed the ____. rad
the standard international unit for measurement of absorbed dose for   all types of ionizing radiation is the _______. gray
the curie is the traditional unit used to express the   ________________. activity of a radioactive material
the principle source of scatter during fluoroscopy comes from ______. the patient
primary barriers should have a thickness of _____mm lead ( “) 1.5 mm lead (1/16″)
an exposure switch on a mobile radiographic unit should be long enough   to allow the radiographer to remain _____cm/______m/______ft away 200 cm/2 m/6 ft
a secondary barrier must have a lead equivalency of ____mm lead (   “) .75 mm lead (1/32″)
the protective lead required around the average x-ray tube is _____mm 1.5 (tube is exposed to primary radiation making it a primary barrier)
after a radioisotope is injected into the body, the rate at which it   is expelled by the body is termed the _______ biologic half- life
a radioactive source has a half life of 8 hours. how long would it   take to reduce a 400 millicurie/hr source to a level of 50 millicurie/hr 24 hours
as the atomic number of a substance increases, the half value   thickness <increases, decreases, stays the same> decreases (more radiation is attenuated, the half value decreases)
the fraction of time that a radiation beam is directed at a specific   barrier or area is termed use factor
minimum source to skin distance 12″
an x-ray machine operating above 70 kVp requires at least ______mm   aluminum of tube filtration 2.5 mm
a gonadal shield with a .5 mm lead equivalent is able to attenuate   approximately ____% of the incident x-rays for a 75 kVp beam 88%
radiographer’s annual dose limit under ALARA 5 mSv (.5 rem) per year
embryo-fetus exposure should not exceed ______/month .5 mSv (.05 rem)
for a fixed fluoroscopic unit, the source to skin distance should not   be less than ______” 15″
the effective dose limits are based on what type of dose relationship? linear, non-threshold
according to the NCRP, the air kerma at the level of the pt during   fluoroscopy, shall not exceed ________/min 10 cGy (10 rad) per min
two most common filtering materials used for filtration of a   diagnostic x-ray beam aluminum and Lucite
What does the dose equivalent allow us to calculate? The effective absorbed dose of all types of ionizing radiation
What is the National Council on Radiation Protection monthly radiation   effective dose equivalent limit for radiation workers? 0.5 mSv
In radiation from a diagnostic x-ray, a measurement of 0.01 sievert is   equal to which of the following? 1 rem
The dose equivalent is calculated by multiplying the absorbed dose by   which of the following? A quality factor
What is the SI unit that refers to the amount of ionizing radiation   that may strike an object such as the human body when in the vicinity of a   radiation source? Coulombs per kilogram
The effective dose is calculated using which of the following? A tissue weighting factor
What unit of measurement is defined as the amount of energy per unit of   mass absorbed by the irradiated object? Gray
How is surface integral exposure calculated? Exposure times the area of the radiation beam

The Hand

Upper Extremities–Part I

Question Answer
Anatomists divide the bones of the upper limbs, or extremities into   what main groups? Hand, forearm, arm, and shoulder girdle
The hands consists of how many bones? Twenty-seven bones
The bones of the digits (fingers and thumb) which are long bones and   consists of a cylindric body and articular ends are called? Phalanges
The bones of the palms that are cylindric in shape and slightly   concave anteriorly are called? Metacarpals
The bones of the wrist are called? Carpals
How many digits are in the hand? Five
The digits contain a total of how many phalanges? Fourteen
How many metacarpals are in the hand? Five
The metacarpal heads that are visible on the dorsal hand in flexion,   are known as the _______? Knuckles
How many carpal bones are in the wrist? Eight
The carpal bones are fitted closely together and arranged in two   __________ rows. Horizontal
This carpal is the largest bone in the proximal carpal row, has a   tubercle on the anterior and lateral aspect for muscle attachment, also   called the navicular bone? Scaphoid
This carpal bone articulates with the radius proximally and is easy to   recognize because of its crescent shape, known as semilunar. Lunate
The ______ is roughly pyramidal and articulates anteriorly with the   harnate,known as cuneiform or triangular. Triquetrum/triquetral
The ______ is a pea-shaped bone situated anterior to the triquetrum   and is easily palpated. Pisiform
The _____ has a tubercle and groove on the anterior surface, also   known as greater multangular. Trapezium
The tubercles of the trapezium and scaphoid comprise the lateral   margin of the ____ groove. Carpal
The _____ has a smaller surface anteriorly than posteriorly, also   known as lesser multangular. Trapezoid
The _________ articulates with the base of the third metacarpal and is   the largest and most centrally located carpal, also known as os magnum. Capitate
The wedge-shaped ________ exhibits the prominent hook of ________,   which is located on the anterior surface. Hamate
The hamate and the pisiform form the _____ margin of the carpal   groove. Medial
A triangular depression is located on the posterior surface of the   wrist and is visible when the thumb is abducted and extended, and is formed   by the tendons of the two major muscles of the thumb is known as what? Anatomic snuffbox
Tenderness in the snuffbox area is a clinical sign suggesting fracture   of the _____–the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Scaphoid
The anterior or palmar surface of the wrist is concave from side to   side and form the what? Carpal sulcus
A strong fibrous band, attaches medially to the pisiform and hook of   harnate and laterally to the tubercles of the scaphoid and trapezium is   called? Flexor retinaculum
The passageway created between the carpal sulcus and flexor   retinaculum is known as the what? Carpal tunnel
Carpal tunnel syndrome results from ___________ of the median nerve   inside the carpal tunnel. Compression

X-Ray Tube

Question Answer
1. The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the… ceiling support system
2. The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support   structure, the protective housing, and the … glass envelope
3. The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the … filament
4. What is the most common cause of tube failure? tungsten vaporization
5. The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a ________   alloy. tungsten
6. The ______ is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube. focal spot
7. High capacity tube rotors revolve at ______. 10,000 rpm
8. The x-ray intensity is lower on the anode side of the tube because   of the … heel effect
9. Tube failure can occur from … long exposure times
10. A dual focus tube has two filaments
11. Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show… maximum exposure time
12. The _______ is/are outside the glass envelope. stators
13. The heel effect is caused by the … anode angle
14. The effective focal spot size is _____ the actual focal spot size. smaller than
15. Localized pitting or cracking on the anode can occur from … a single excessive exposure
16. Most of the heat generated at the target is due to … outer-shell excitation
17. The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to   … tube current
18. Approximately _____% of the kinetic energy of the projectile   electrons is converted to x-rays at the target. 1%
19. Electron interations at the inner shell of the target atoms   produce _____ radiation. characteristic
20. The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are   _____(shell) x-rays. K-shell
21. Most of the x-rays produced at the target are _____. bremsstrahlung
22. At 55 kVp ____% of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung. 100%
23. Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by _____ at the target. slowing electrons
24. Characteristic x-rays are produced by … released binding energy
25. An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have a continuous emission   spectrum with a maximum energy of _____ keV. 100
26. An increase in mAs would (increase or not affect) the (amplitude   or position) of the emission spectrum. increase, amplitude
27. The discrete portion of the x-ray emission spectrum would change   position with a change in (kVp, target material, or voltage ripple). target material
28. How does added filtration affect the emission spectrum? (increased   or reduced amplitude) and (shift to right or left) reduced, right
29. The number of useful x-rays in the beam defines x-ray… (kVp,   quality, quantity or mAs) quantity
30. Standard x-ray machines produce about ___ mR/mAs at 70 kVp   measured at 100 cm SID. 5 mR/mAs
31. If filter thickness is _____, then x-ray intensity is _____.   (increased or reduced) and (increased or reduced). There are two answers increased, reduced and reduced, increased   (filtration is proportional to spectrum, speed inversely to dose).
32. If x-ray quantity is doubled, the optical density on the finished   radiograph will be … (reduced by half, just slightly increased or increased   by a factor of two) increased by a factor of two
33. If a technologist changes the technique from 70 kVp @ 200 mAs to   70 kVp @ 400 mAs, then the x-ray intensity will ____ and optical density will   ____. (double or remain the same) both lines double, double
34. An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increase mAs ____%. 100
35. If an exposure is 50 mR at an SID of 40 inches, what would the   exposure be at an SID of 60 inches? 22.2mR (inverse square law)
36. An x-ray beam that could pass through dense tissue would have high   ____. (penetrability, quality or quantity). Both penetrability and quality
37. A low quality beam would also have low … (penetrability,   quantity, mAs or intensity). penetrability
38. Image contrast is affected by … (beam quality, kVp or mAs). Both beam quality and kVp
39. Added filtration will ____ beam quality and ____ beam quantity.   (decrease or increase) both lines. increase, decrease
40. The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains   ____ of the energy of the incident photon. (none, little, most, all) most
41. Compton scatter is directed at ____ degrees angle from the   incident beam. (0, 180, 90, any) any degrees
42. Only at energies above 10MeV can ____ take place.   (photodisintegration, pair production, Compton Scatter or photoelectric   absorption) photodisintergration
43. When the mass density of the absorber is ___, it results in ____   Compton scatter. (increased or decrease) both lines increased, increased
44. Because of differential absorption, about ___% of the incident   beam from the x-ray tube contributes to the finished image. 0.5%
45. Attenuation is caused by ___. (absorption, scattering or   transmission) absorption and scattering
46. Barium is a good contrast agent because of its… high atomic number
47. The use of contrast agents increases the amount of (differential   absorption, Compton scatter or photoelectric absorption) All of them
48. A negative contrast agent is ___. (air, iodine, barium or water) air
49. X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to …   (photoelectric absorption, the radiographic image, image fog or beam attenuation) the radiographic image
50. If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then   95% of that beam was … (scattered, attenuated, absorbed or back-scattered) attenuated

Bontrager-Chapter 14-Upper Gastrointestinal System

Question Answer
Alimentary canal from beginning to end oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large   intestine, anus
digestive accessory organs salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gallbladder
3 primary functions of the digestive system intake and/or digestion, absorption, elimination
What is the study of the Pharynx and Esophagus called? Esophagram or Barium Swallow
WHat is the study of the distal Esophagus, Stomach, Duodenum called? Upper Gastrointestinal Series (UGI) or Upper GI
Preferred Contrast Medium Barium Sulfate
Connects posteriorly to the pharynx Oral cavity/ mouth
Oral cavity accessory organss salivary glands
chewing mastication
swallowing deglutition
glands that secrete saliva parotid, submandibular, sublingual
Saliva is ___% water and ___% solutes 99.5% water and 0.5% solutes
The trachea is <anterior/posterior> to the epiglottis. anterior
3 parts of the pharynx nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
During the process of deglutition, what is done to prevent substances   from being regurgitated through the nose or going down the larynx? the soft palate closes off the nasopharynx and the epiglottis is   depressed to cover the laryngeal opening
3rd part of the alimentary canal that terminates at the stomach Esophagus
narrowest portion of the alimentary canal swallowing tube
2 indentations present on the esophagus (descending, posterior to   mediastinum) 1. at the aortic arch 2. where the esophagus crosses left primary   bronchus
Esophagus passes through the diaphragm slightly to the ____ and _____   to the midpoint. left, posterior
abdominal segment of the esophagus, measures between 1 and 2 cm cardiac antrum
opening between esophagus and stomach Esophagogastric junction/ Cardiac orifice
Peristalsis wavelike series of involuntary muscle contractions propelling solid   and semi-solid material through the alimentary canal
How would you compensate for peristalsis while taking a radiograph? use a faster time
Most dilated portion of the alimentary canal stomach
notch directly superior to the cardiac orifice cardiac notch
opening leaving the distal stomach pyloric orifice
curvature on the medial border of the stomach, forms a concave border lesser curvature
curvature that is 4 to 5 times greater than the other greater
3 stomach subdivisions fundus, body or corpus, pyloric portion
portion of the stomach that lies lateral and superior to the cardiac   orifice fundus
lower end of the stomach, seperating the body from the pylorus angular notch
2 parts of the pyloric portion pyloric antrum, pyloric canal
numerous longitudinal gastric folds rugae
2 positions that will show barium in the fundus AP/ LPO
3 positions that will show air in the fundus erect/ PA/ RAO
shortest, widest and most fixed portion of the small bowel duodenum
What is the romance of the abdomen the head of the pancreas fits into the c-loop of the duodenum
4 parts of the duodenum superior, descending, horizontal, ascending
what is the junction of the duodenum and the jejunum called? duodenojejunal flexure
What holds the duodenaljejunal flexure in place? ligament of treitz
2 divisions of digestion mechanical process and chemical component
result of stomach contents mixing and churning into a semi-fluid mass chyme
gastric emptying takes approx. ______hours. 2-6
foods with a high _________content pass through faster than foods with   high _____ or _______. carbohydrates, fat, protein
______ _______ in the small intestine helps to facilitate absorpion rhythmic segmentation
Peristalsis is stronger in the _______ and _______. It is weaker in   the _______. esophagus, stomach, small intestine
6 different classes of chmical digestion carbs, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, water
complex sugars carbs
fats lipids
_______ speed up chemical digestion. they are found in the _______,   _____, enzymes. salivary glands in mouth, small bowel, stomach and pancreas

C-Spine positioning

Question Answer
name given to the C7 vertebra prominens
openings in the cervical vertebrae for the transmission of the   vertebral artery and vein transverse foramen
Where should the center of the IR be positioned for the open mouth AP   projection of the atlas and axis? C2
Which line must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP open mouth atlas   and axis Line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the   mastoid process
For which projection is the patient instructed to softly phonate ah   during the exposure? AP open mouth atlas and axis
Where is the CR directed for an open mouth AP projection of the atlas   and axis? center of the IR perpendicular thru the open mouth
When the OID long, scattered radiation that would expose the film at a   short OID is scattered away from the film. Because much of the scattered   radiation is not being directed toward the film, a grid is not needed to   absorb the scatter air gap technique
For which projection is the patient instructed to softly phonate ah   during the exposure? AP open mouth atlas and axis
Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within   the foramen magnum? fuchs method
Where is the center of the IR positioned for the AP projection of the   dens, Fuchs method? tip of the mastoid process
What is the CR angulation for the AP projection of the dens, Fuchs   method? perpendicular to the IR, zero degrees
Where is the IR centered for an AP axial cervical spine? C4
The CR angle for an AP axial cervical vertebrae 15-20 cephalad
Where is the CR directed for a lateral cervical spine? C4
true or false: When cervical vertebral radiographs are taken on a   trauma patient in whom subluxation or fracture is suspected, it is important   that the c collar is removed or adjusted to obtain a good radiograph. false
The SID for a lateral c spine must be a minimum of how many inches? 60-70
The respiration phase for a lateral c spine is? suspension after expiration
Grandy method is? lateral C-spine
Where is the CR centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral   c spine? C4
The phase of respiration for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral   c spine is? suspended respiration
How much is the body rotated for AP axial oblique projection of the   cervical intervertebral foramina? 45 degrees
The swimmers lateral projection is performed to demonstrate the? cervicalthoracic region
The twining method demonstrates the Cervicothoracic region in which   projection? lateral swimmers
What is the CR angulation for an AP axial projection of the cervical   spine on a trauma patient? 15-20 cephalad
Flexion and extension views of the cervical vertebrae are performed to   show? degree of moblity
The thyroid cartilage generally corresponds to the level of? C4-C6
true or false: If the patient’s head and upper cervical column are   tilted toward or away from the film, the upper cervical column is no longer   aligned parallel with the film. true
Where is the CR directed for the lateral projection of the   cervicothoracic region twining method? C7-T1
True or False: If the patients chin was not adequately elevated, the   mandibular rami superimpose the bodies of c1 and c2 true
What is the CR angle for the pa axial oblique projection of the   cervical intervertebral foramina? 15-20 degrees caudad
Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on the pa axial oblique   projection of the cervical spine? foramen and pedicle closest to the IR
The respiration phase for an AP or pa axial oblique projection of the   c spine is: suspended respiration
Patients may arrive in the emergency room with trauma to the neck.   Which projection of the c spine is performed first, and then reviewed by a   physician, before proceeding with other projections? cross table lateral to check for fx
The recommended SID for a dorsal decubitus cross table lateral   projection of the c spine on a trauma patient is: 60-72 inches
What is the CR angulation for an AP axial projection of the c spine on   a trauma patient? 15-20 degrees cephalad
Which CR angulation would be used to demonstrate the c spine pillars   and laminae for an AP axial projection on a trauma patient? 20-30 degrees caudad
Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the   Cervicothoracic region in the lateral projection? twining, grandy, pawlow, twining and pawlow
The twining method demonstrates the cervicothoracic region in which   projection? lateral
The swimmers lateral projection is performed to demonstrate the: cervicothoracic regiion
What is the CR angulation for the lat projection of the   cervicothoracic region twining method when the shoulder can be depressed? zero
Where is the CR directed for the lateral projection of the   cervicothoracic region twining method? C7-T1
The Pawlow method demonstrates the cervicothoracic region in which   projection? lateral
The CR angulation for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic   region Pawlow method is: 3-5 degrees caudad
Flexion and extension views of the c spine are performed in the __   position? lateral
The thyroid cartilage corresponds to level of C4-C6
Along with the lower edge of the upper incisors, what other bony   landmark must be aligned for the AP open mouth projection? tip of mastiod
Why is the chin extended for lateral projection of the c spine? to prevent superimopsition of the C1-C2
If the patients chin was not adequately elevated, the mandibular rami   will superimpose the bodies of? C1 and C2
The AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine include the   following in what position RPO, LPO
The pa axial oblique projection of the cervical spine include the   following: RAO, LAO
The position used to demonstrate the absence of normal movement from   trauma or disease is: lateral hyperflexion and extension
On the lateral c spine projection both the CR and IR are centered at   the level of __ C4


Question Answer
Misrepresentation of the true size and shape of an object is the   definition of? Distortion
What is the most important factor in controlling distortion? OID
What keeps distortion to a minimum? Increased SID
What are the 2 types of distortion that can reduce the quality of a   radiograph? Size and shape
What occurs when the SID is increased? Image is reduced
What size focal spot is used when doing macroradiography? .3mm
When an object is placed halfway between the tube and the film, the   image will be how many times larger? 2 times
What percentage increase is usually used for magnification   radiography? 100%
The ratio of SID to SOD represents which of the following? Magnification ratio
Tube angulation will produce which type of distortion? Elongation
Magnification distortion can be used to an advantage for which of the   following radiographic procedures? Cerebral angiography
Changing the shape of an object is called? Distortion
An x-ray tube that is designed for magnification radiography is   referred to as what? A fractional focus tube
What factor can affect shape distortion? X-ray tube angulation
What advantage is there to magnifying an object? Small objects become visible
A misrepresentation of the shape of an object may be caused by? An angled object, an angled x-ray tube, or an angled cassette
What would not be used to minimize radiographic distortion? Shortest possible exposure time
To avoid shape distortion, what must be paid close attention to? Part angulation
How does magnification affect radiographic quality? Decreases detail
Which of the following will produce the largest image? 40″ SID, 3″ OID
If the SID is increased the same as the OID, what will the resultant   radiograph show? An increase in size distortion
Size distortion is affected by? Geometric factors
What can be done to help compensate for an angled part? Align tube, part and film
What is the magnification factor if an object measures 4 cm, but the   radiographic image is 8 cm? 2x
What will occur when the OID is decreased? The image is closer to actual size
Which of the following will produce the smallest image? 72″ SID, 2″ OID
If the SID increases, how is distortion affected? Distortion goes down
If the air-gap technique is used, how is distortion affected? Distortion goes up
If the SOD increases, how is distortion affected? Distortion goes down
If the phospor size increases, how is distortion affected? It has no effect
If the grid ratio increases, how is distortion affected? It has no effect
If the tube angle increases, how is distortion affected? Distortion increases


Question Answer
What is the purpose of the Grid? To improve radiographic contrast, To absorb scattered radiation before   it reaches the IR
What is Transmission responsable for? the dark areas of a radiograph
What is Absorption responsable for? the light areas of a radiograph
What does scatter do to an X-ray? creates fog and lowers contrast
What increases scatter? kV increases, Field size increases, thickness of part increases,   atomic number decreases
What are the indications for Grid use? when the part thickness is more than 10 cm, and when the kV is higher   than 60
Who created Grids, and when? Dr. Gustav Bucky in 1913
What are Grids constructed of? Radiopaque lead strips that are separated by radiolucent interspace   material, usually Aluminum
Who improved the design of Grids, and how? Dr. Hollis Potter. He made the grid lines run in the same direction and   made them move during exposure.
How do you find the Grid Ratio? Grid Ratio = H/D
With a high grid ratio, what scale of contrast is there? short scale of contrast
T\F: A higher grid ratio is better at removing scatter radiation. True
What is the typical grid ratio? 5:1 to 6:1
What is Grid Frequency? the number of lead strips in the grid per inch or cm
T\F: Lower frequency grids have thinner lead strips. False : Higher frequency grids have thinner leas strips.
What type of grid contains the greatest amount of lead and is most   effeciant in absorbing radiation? High ratio, low frequency grids
T\F: As the lead content increases, the removal of scatter decreases,   and the contrast decreases False: As the lead increases, removal of scatter increases, and   contrast increases.
What are some types of grid patterns? Crosshatched, linear, Rombic, and consentric.
What does a crosshatched pattern look like? It has both horizontal and vertical lead strips
What does a linear pattern look like? lead strips run the length of the grid in one direction
What does a Rombic pattern look like and where is it used? Looks like a wavy pattern and is used mostly in Europe
What does a Consentric pattern look like? A circular pattern that is evergrowing and is used mostly in Japan
What type of grid has a higher margin of error? the linear pattern
What are the types of linear grids? focused and parallel
What do focused linear grids look like? the lead strips are angled which matches the beam divergence
What is Canting? When the lead strips are angled to match the beam divergence
What does improper centering on a linear grid result in? Peripheral cut off
What does a parallel linear grid look like? the lead strips are all parallel to one another
What is a downfall of using a parallel linear grid? absorbs a large amount of the primary beam.
What is reciprocating grid movement? the grid is moved back and fourth by a motor during exposure.
What is oscillating grid movement? a electromagnet that pulls the grid to the side and releases it during   exposure.
What is the grid conversion factor? GCF = mAs with grid \ mAs without grid
What happens to the density of a radiograph when a grid is used? decreases
What is the Potter-Bucky diaphragm, and what does it do? it is the Bucky we use today, it moves the grid during exposure.
What formula is used when converting from one grid ratio ot another? mAs of 1 over mAs of 2 = GCF of 1 over GCF of 2
What does the ICRU do? the International Commission of Radiologic Units and Measurements   evaluate grid performance by two criteria; selectivity and contrast   imporvement ability.
What does selectivity describe? the ability of the grid to allow the primary radiation to reach the IR   and prevent scatter
T\F: high lead content grids are more selective. True
What is the “K” factor? the contrast improvement ability which is a comparison of contrast of   an image with a grid to that of an image without a grid
What are the typical ranges of the contrast improvement factor? 1.5 an 3.5
When the “K” factor is increased, what is incrased as well? Contrast
What can you do to avoid grid errors? proper aligmnent between tube and grid
What does improper alignment of the tube and the grid cause? cut off
What are some types of grid errors? off level, off center, off focus, upside down, morie effect
What is Moire effect? the grid lines must be running in the same direction as the movement   of the laser beam that is scanning the imaging plate.
What is the Air-Gap technique? places a space between the part and the grid. a 10″ gap has the   same effect as a 15:1 grid
What happens when the grid is upside down? severe peripheral grid cut off will occur
What does it mean when the grid is off focused? the gird has a specified distance as the focal range. if a distance of   44 SID is required and a 72″ SID is used, the result will be grid cut   off on the peripheral edges of the image
What does it mean when the grid is off center? the CR is off center and the result is a decrease in exposure across   the entire image.
What does it mean when the grid is off level? when the tube is angled, an off level grid error occurs with a focused   grid and it is the only positioning error possible with a parallel grid.


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